1. Common Entrance Exam (CEE)
  2. 1. CEE 2024
    2. CEE 2023
    3. CEE 2022
    4. CEE 2021
  3. Institute of Medicine (IOM)
  4. 5. IOM 2017 (Re-exam)
    6. IOM 2017
    7. IOM 2016
    8. IOM 2014
    9. IOM 2013
    10. IOM 2012
    11. IOM 2011
    12. IOM 2010
    13. IOM 2010
    14. IOM 2009
    15. IOM 2009
    16. IOM 2008
    17. IOM 2007
    18. IOM 2006
    19. IOM 2005
    20. IOM 2004
    21. IOM 2003
    22. IOM 2002
    23. IOM 2001
    24. IOM 2000
    25. IOM 1999
    26. IOM 1998
  5. Kathmandu University Exam (KU)
  6. 27. KU 2018
    28. KU 2017
    29. KU 2016
    30. KU 2015
    31. KU 2014 (A)
    32. KU 2014 (B)
    33. KU 2013
    34. KU 2012
    35. KU 2011 Jan/ Feb
    36. KU 2010 Aug
    37. KU 2010 Jan/ Feb
    38. KU 2008
    39. KU 2006
    40. KU 2004
    41. KU 2003
    42. KU 2001
    43. KU 2000
  7. Patan Academy of Health Science (PAHS)
  8. 44. PAHS 2018
    45. PAHS 2017
Institute of Medicine (IOM)
9. IOM 2013
1. Clotting of the blood is delayed by
  • Prothrombin
  • Heparin
  • Vitamin K
  • Calcium
2. Connective tissue is originated from
  • Endoderm
  • Mesoderm
  • Ectoderm
  • Ecto-mesoderm
3. Which of the following is exoskeleton in invertebrate
  • Chitin
  • Melanophore
  • Keratin
  • Melanin
4. Which one of the following is a part of pelvic girdle
  • Acetabulum
  • Greater tubersotiy
  • Lesser tubersoty
  • Femur
5. Typhoid in human being is caused by
  • Retrovirus
  • Salmonella
  • Shigella
  • Vibrio
6. Which one of the following belongs to mollusca
  • Cuttle fish
  • Gold fish
  • Silver fish
  • Starfish
7. The skull of frog and rabbit is
  • Dicondylic
  • Monocondylic
  • Tricondylic
  • Tetracondylic
8. Fish migrating from sea water to fresh water for breeding is called
  • Anadromous
  • Catadromous
  • Amphidromous
  • Oceanodromus
9. The function of pituitary gland is controlled by
  • Hypothalamus
  • Pineal glands
  • Cerebrum
  • Cerebellum
10. Blood is
  • Connective tissue
  • Muscular tissue
  • Epithelial tissue
  • Nervous tissue
11. The study of the nuclear cytology is called
  • Serology
  • Embryology
  • Karyology
  • Physiology
12. Histamine is secreted by
  • Mast cell
  • Osteoblast
  • Fibroblast
  • Macrophage
13. Antibodies are principally produced by
  • Spleen
  • Lymphoid tissue
  • Liver
  • Bone marrow
14. Evenly distributed yolk is called
  • Meiolecithal
  • Homolecithal
  • Mesolecithal
  • Telocithal
15. Which one is the sensory organ of rabbit?
  • Statocyst
  • Jacobson's organ
  • Osphradium
  • Johnston's organ
16. Motile, elongated zygote of plasmodium is found in
  • Gut of mosquito
  • RBC of human
  • Liver of human
  • Salivary glands of mosquito
17. Bidder's canal in frog is found in relation to:
  • Kidney
  • Testis
  • Ovary
  • Liver
18. The membrane that covers the cartilage is known as:
  • Perichondrium
  • Perisoteum
  • Pericardium
  • Perineurium
19. In man, nodules of lymphoid tissue (Payer's patches) are found in
  • Oesophagus
  • Ileum
  • Rectum
  • Colon
20. Gerontology is the study of
  • Regeneration
  • Ageing
  • Death
  • Growth
21. Coral reef is formed by
  • Echinoderms
  • Helminthes
  • Molluscs
  • Coelenterates
22. Polymorphism is characteristics of the phylum:
  • Coelenterata
  • Annelida
  • Porifera
  • Protozoa
23. Response of organisms to stimulus of touch is called
  • Phototaxis
  • Thermotaxis
  • Thigmotaxis
  • Hydrotaxis
24. The right auricular-ventricular aperture in rabbit is guarded by
  • Tricuspid valve
  • Spiral valve
  • Bicuspid valve
  • Semilunar valve
25. Earthworm appears brown due to presence of
  • Creatinine
  • Porphyrin
  • Chloragogen cells
  • Melanin
26. Mature gametocytes of plasmodium are found in
  • Human stomach
  • Stomach of female anopheles
  • Human blood
  • Blood of female anopheles
27. Which one of the following vertebra is fused
  • Sacrum
  • Cervival
  • Thoracic
  • Lumbar
28. Blastopore in vertebrates developed into
  • Anus
  • Mouth
  • Nasal cavity
  • Body cavity
29. Which of the following parasite causes iron (Fe) deficiency anaemia?
  • Pinworm
  • Round worm
  • Hook worm
  • Tape worm
30. Transitional epithelium is found in
  • Urinary bladder
  • Liver
  • Kidney
  • Oesophagus
31. Which of the following is a regular flower?
  • Brassica campestris
  • Solanum nigrum
  • Pisum sativum
  • Vicia faba
32. The layer of the cell wall that is formed soon after the cell division and is composed of calcium pectate is
  • Primary cell wall
  • Secondary cell wall
  • Cell coat
  • Middle lamella
33. Which one is characteristic sugar of DNA
  • Deoxyribose
  • Deoxyhexose
  • Ribose
  • Hexose
34. The fungus absorbs the food by:
  • Mycelium
  • Root
  • Rhizome
  • Thallus
35. Apomixis is development of a new plant:
  • From stem cuttings
  • From root cuttings
  • Without fusion of gametes
  • From fusion of gametes
36. Alcohol fermentation takes place in the presence of
  • Zymase
  • Invertase
  • Maltase
  • Amylase
37. Pyruvic acid is changed to CO2 and H2O in
  • Kreb's cycle
  • Glycolysis
  • Fermentation
  • Calvin cycle
38. Nucleic acid is polymer of
  • Globulins
  • Nucleotides
  • Nucleoproteins
  • Nucleosides
39. The process of photolysis of water takes place during
  • Electron transport system
  • Photophosphorylation
  • Dark reaction
  • Light reaction
40. Grafting is not possible in monocotyledons because they
  • Are herbaceous
  • Have scattered vascular bundles
  • Lack endodermis and pith
  • Lack cambium
41. The main significance of M-phase of the cell cycle is:
  • Fusion of DNA
  • Physical separation of replicated DNA molecules
  • Reduction in chromosome number
  • Replication of cell organelles
42. When pollination occurs between neighbouring flowers of the same plant:
  • Xenogamy
  • Allogamy
  • Geitonogamy
  • Cleistogamy
43. The edible part of apple and pear is:
  • Thalamus
  • Epicarp
  • Mesocarp
  • Endocarp
44. Milky water of green coconut is
  • Liquid endosperm
  • Liquid of female plant
  • Liquid nucellus
  • Liquid chalaza
45. Pteridophytes differ from bryophytes in possessing
  • Alternation of generation
  • Archegonia
  • Vascular tissue
  • Spores
46. Insectivorous plants generally grown on areas where there is scarcity of:
  • Mg
  • Fe
  • Zn
  • N2
47. An embryo sac of a flowering plant has
  • 4 haploid nuclei
  • 4 diploid nuclei
  • 8 haploid nuclei
  • 8 diploid nuclei
48. Which one of the following is a free living aerobic nitrogen fixing bacteria
  • Azotobacter
  • Rhizobium
  • Clostridium
  • Anabaena
49. The formation of fruit in absence of fertilization is
  • Parthenogenesis
  • Parthenocarpy
  • Polyembryony
  • Polygamy
50. Gymnosperms are regarded as naked seeded plants because they lack
  • Ovule
  • Ovary
  • Seed coat
  • Sporophylls
51. Separation of two substances by fractional crystallization depends upon
  • Crystalline shape
  • Viscosity
  • Solubility
  • Density
52. The Normality of a solution containing 5 gm NaOH per litre is:
  • 0.125 N
  • 0.5 N
  • 2 N
  • 8 N
53. The intermixing of gases is generally accompanied by:
  • Change in heat energy
  • Increase in free energy
  • Decrease in free energy
  • Constant free energy
54. Which of the following is the most basic compound:
  • Acetanilide
  • P-nitro aniline
  • Benzylamine
  • Aniline
55. Blood is isotonic with:
  • Saturated solution of mixture of NaCl and KCl
  • Saturated NaCl solution
  • Saturated KCl solution
  • Normal saline solution
56. Compound formed by sp3 hybridization will have structure:
  • Tetrahedral
  • Pyramidal
  • Trigonal
  • Planar
57. A solution of sulphur dioxide in water reacts with hydrogen sulphide precipitating sulphur where SO2 acts as
  • An acid
  • A catalyst
  • An oxidizing agent
  • A reducing agent
58. When ammonium chloride is added to a solution of ammonium hydroxide:
  • The conc. Of NH4+ and OH- increases
  • The conc. Of OH- increases
  • The conc. Of OH- decreases
  • The dissociation of NH4OH increases
59. When phenol is reacted with PCl5, the product obtained is/ are:
  • Mixture of chlorobenzene and benzoyl chloride
  • Mixture of chlorobenzene and triphenyl phosphate
  • Benzyl chloride
  • Chlorobenzene
60. When NH3 gas is passes into Mercurous nitrate solution:
  • Black colour of Hg(NH2)NO3 and Hg is formed
  • Black colour of Hg(NH2)NO3 is formed
  • Reddish brown HgO.NH2 is formed
  • Black colour of Hg(NH2)NO3 is formed
61. In which of the following reactions, H2 is acting as oxidizing agent?
  • H₂ + Cl₂ → 2HCl
  • N₂ + 3H₂ → 2NH₃
  • Ca + H₂ → CaH₂
  • CuO + H₂ → Cu + H₂O
62. The normality of solution containing 6.36 gram of Na₂CO₃ in 600 ml of it is
  • 0.01
  • 0.05 N
  • 0.1 N
  • 0.2 N
63. What will be the molarity of the solution containing 5 gm of sodium hydroxide in 250 ml solution
  • 0.1 mol
  • 2 mol
  • 0.5 mol
  • 1 mol
64. A catalyst accelerates reaction because:
  • It increases the activation energy
  • It forms complex with one of the reactant
  • It lower the activation energy
  • It brings the reactant close
65. Which of the following will show common ion effect?
  • HCl + HNO₃
  • HCl + H₂SO₄
  • HCl + NaCl
  • HCl + H₂S
66. With the rise in temperature, surface tension
  • Increases
  • Decreases
  • Remains the same
  • Becomes zero
67. When nitrobenzene is treated with Zinc-dust and aq. NH4Cl, it gives
  • Hydroxylamine
  • Phenyl hydroxylamine
  • Azoxy benzene
  • Aniline
68. The molality of 15% (w/v) of a solution of H2SO4 (density = 1.1 g/cc) is:
  • 1.2
  • 1.4
  • 1.6
  • 1.8
69. Heterolytic cleavage of carbon-carbon bond produces:
  • 2 carbonium ions
  • Two free radicals
  • One cation and one carbanion
  • A free radical and a carbanion
70. The formation of cyanohydrins from ketone is an example of:
  • Electrophilic substitution
  • Nucleophilic substitution
  • Nucleophilic addition
  • Free radical addition
71. Emulsion is a colloidal system of:
  • Two liquids
  • Two solids
  • One gas and solid
  • One gas and liquid
72. Hydrogen bonding is not present in:
  • H₂O
  • H₂S
  • Glycerol
  • HF
73. The binary compound of oxygen and fluorine are called fluorides not oxide because:
  • Fluorine is more electronegative than oxygen
  • Size of fluorine is small than oxygen
  • Reducing power of fluorine is greater than oxygen
  • They contain fluoride ions
74. Propene can be distinguished from propyne by using:
  • Ammonical silver nitrate
  • Bayer's reagent
  • Bromine water
  • Fehling's reagent
75. Magnetic quantum number gives:
  • Nuclear stability
  • Orbital orientation
  • Shape of orbital
  • Size of orbital
76. Which of the following is a nucleophile
  • H₂O
  • NO₃⁺
  • BF₃
  • H₃O⁺
77. Alkaline hydrolysis of fat is known as:
  • Acetylation
  • Esterification
  • Saponification
  • Alkylation
78. Which of the following is most reactive towards Nitration?
  • Nitrobenzene
  • Toluene
  • Benzene
  • Benzoic acid
79. Highly pure dilute solution of sodium in liquid ammonia acts as:
  • Oxidising agent
  • Dehydrating agent
  • Reducing agent
  • Catalyst
80. The volume of water to be added to 100 cm³ of 1/2 N H₂SO₄ to get decinormal concentration is:
  • 100 cm³
  • 450 cm³
  • 400 cm³
  • 500 cm³
81. A fielder can throw a cricket ball to a maximum horizontal distance of 100 m. How high the fielder can throw the same ball?
  • 25 m
  • 50 m
  • 40 m
  • 100 m
82. A liquid is placed in a graduated glass cylinder. The coefficient of real expansion of the liquid is thrice that of linear expansion of the glass. On heating the level of liquid will
  • First decrease then increase
  • Decrease
  • Increase
  • Approximately remains the same
83. The polarizing angle between reflected and refracted rays is
  • 45°
  • 90°
  • 180°
84. The direction of the two forces 6N and 2N acting on a body of mass 2 kg, the minimum acceleration of the body cannot be less than
  • 2 m/s²
  • 3 m/s²
  • 2.5 m/s²
  • 4 m/s²
85. At the same temperature, pressure and volume of two gases, which of the following quantities is constant?
  • Total number of molecules
  • Root mean square velocity
  • Average kinetic energy
  • Mean free path
86. A positively charged particles moving due east enters a region of uniform magnetic field directed vertically upwards. The particle will
  • Get deflected vertically upwards
  • Move in a circular orbit with its speed increases
  • Move in a circular orbit with its speed unchanged
  • Continue to move due east
87. Which of the following is always conserved in collision?
  • Kinetic energy
  • Angular momentum
  • Linear momentum
  • Torque
88. A boat having length of 3m and breadth 2m is floating on lake. The boat sinks by 1 cm when a man is on it. The mass of the man is:
  • 60 kg
  • 72 kg
  • 12 kg
  • 128 kg
89. If no internal force is applied in a body the velocity of the centre of mass:
  • Zero
  • Increases
  • Decrease
  • Remains constant
90. A source and listener is moving in the same direction with a velocity equal to half the velocity of sound. What is the change in frequency.
  • 0%
  • 100%
  • 25%
  • 50%
91. In D.C. circuit power dissipated per unit volume is proportional to:
  • Current
  • Resistance
  • Square of electric field
  • Electric field
92. The product of moment of inertia and angular acceleration gives.
  • Linear momentum
  • Angular momentum
  • Torque
  • Force
93. When a rod of length 2 m carrying current of 10 A is placed perpendicular to magnetic flux density of strength 0.15 T. What is the force experienced by it?
  • 2N
  • 0.3N
  • 1N
  • 3N
94. If the biconvex lens is silvered on one side then it will behave as:
  • Concave mirror
  • Convex mirror
  • Plane mirror
  • Converging lens
95. A current is flowing through a circular wire in clockwise direction. What will be the direction of magnetic lines of force:
  • Parallel to the plane of the coil
  • Perpendicular to the plane of the coil away from the reader
  • Perpendicular to the plane of the coil towards the reader
  • At any angle
96. A body travels with velocity 30 m/s for 1st half of time and with velocity 40 m/s for 2nd half of time then what would be average velocity
  • 50 m/s
  • 35 m/s
  • 40 m/s
  • 30 m/s
97. When two tuning forks of frequencies 484 Hz and 486 Hz are sounded together. What will be beat frequency?
  • 4 Hz
  • 2 Hz
  • 3 Hz
  • 6 Hz
98. The intensity of sound at night increases because of
  • Low temperature
  • Increase in density
  • Decrease in density
  • Calmness
99. In a dynamo, voltage is 6V current 0.5 A. what is the power generated?
  • 12
  • 1.5
  • 3
  • 5
100. The internal structure of crystal can be studied by
  • X-rays
  • γ-rays
  • IR rays
  • UV rays