1. Common Entrance Exam (CEE)
  2. 1. CEE 2024
    2. CEE 2023
    3. CEE 2022
    4. CEE 2021
  3. Institute of Medicine (IOM)
  4. 5. IOM 2017 (Re-exam)
    6. IOM 2017
    7. IOM 2016
    8. IOM 2014
    9. IOM 2013
    10. IOM 2012
    11. IOM 2011
    12. IOM 2010
    13. IOM 2010
    14. IOM 2009
    15. IOM 2009
    16. IOM 2008
    17. IOM 2007
    18. IOM 2006
    19. IOM 2005
    20. IOM 2004
    21. IOM 2003
    22. IOM 2002
    23. IOM 2001
    24. IOM 2000
    25. IOM 1999
    26. IOM 1998
  5. Kathmandu University Exam (KU)
  6. 27. KU 2018
    28. KU 2017
    29. KU 2016
    30. KU 2015
    31. KU 2014 (A)
    32. KU 2014 (B)
    33. KU 2013
    34. KU 2012
    35. KU 2011 Jan/ Feb
    36. KU 2010 Aug
    37. KU 2010 Jan/ Feb
    38. KU 2008
    39. KU 2006
    40. KU 2004
    41. KU 2003
    42. KU 2001
    43. KU 2000
  7. Patan Academy of Health Science (PAHS)
  8. 44. PAHS 2018
    45. PAHS 2017
Institute of Medicine (IOM)
8. IOM 2014
1. N-propyl bromide on reduction with alc. KOH gives
  • Propane
  • Ethane
  • Propyne
  • Propene
2. Which has highest knocking property?
  • aromatic hydrocarbons
  • branched chain olefins
  • heterocyclic compounds
  • straight chain olefins
3. Which of the following contains dipole induced dipole interactions?
  • SiF4 and He
  • HCl and He
  • Cl2 and CCl4
  • H2O and C4H5OH
4. The movement of dispersion medium under the influence of electric field is called?
  • electrophoresis
  • electro osmosis
  • cataphoresis
  • polythene
5. Which of the following forms nylon?
  • Polyster
  • Polyamide
  • poly vinyl chloride
  • polythene
6. Which of the following occurs when an electron in an excited state moves to ground state?
  • atom undergoes spontaneous decay
  • energy is absorbed
  • light is emitted
  • charge increases
7. Dehydration is most easiest in case of?
  • Tertiary alcohol
  • Secondary alcohol
  • Primary alcohol
  • CH3OH
8. Covalent character of transition metal increases with
  • decrease in ionization energy
  • increase in oxidation state
  • decrease in oxidation state
  • increase in ionization energy
9. IUPAC name of CH3−O−CH2−CH2−O−CH3 is
  • dimethoxy ether
  • 2-methoxy-3-oxy butane
  • 2-keto butanoic acid
  • dimethoxy ethane
10. A liquid is found to scatter a beam of light but leaves no residue in a filter paper. The liquid can be described as
  • true solution
  • oil
  • Suspension
  • colloid
11. Two electrons in K shell will differ in ....quantum number
  • principal
  • magnetic
  • Azimuthal
  • spin
12. The third law of thermodynamics helps in finding?
  • enthalpy
  • absolute entropy
  • internal energy
  • free energy
13. Which of the following is reducing agent in the following is redox reaction?
  • 14H+ + Cr2O7 + Ni → Cr+3 + H2O + Ni+2
  • H2O
  • H
  • Ni
14. A substance follows zero order kinetics if the rate constant is R and the initial concentration is a then the half life will be
  • ak/2
  • a/2k
  • k/2
  • l/ak
15. Peptisation is
  • converting precipitate into colloidal solution
  • purification of colloids
  • movement of colloidal particles towards the electrodes
  • precipitation of colloidal particles
16. Volume of water that should be added to 50mL of 4N HCI to obtain 1N solution is
  • 200 ml
  • 150 ml
  • 100 ml
  • 50ml
17. A gas gets decolurises by alkaline KMnO4 solution but does not give precipitate with ammonical AgNO3 solution? not ethye
  • acetylene
  • ethylene
  • methane
  • ethane
18. An ideal gas cannot be liquefied because
  • critical temperature is low
  • intermolecular space is high
  • intermolecular forces are neglible
  • molecules are relatively smaller
19. The compound formed as result of oxidation of ethyl benzene by KMnO4 is
  • acetophenone
  • benzyl alcohol
  • benzophenone
  • benzoic acid
20. Iodoethane reacts with ale KCN followed by complete hydrolysis gives
  • ethylamine
  • ethanamine
  • acetonitrile
  • propanoic acid
21. In the reaction; Ag + H2SO4 → AgSO4 + SO2 + H2O, H2SO4 acts as
  • reducing agent as well as an acid
  • dehydrating agent
  • catalyst
  • oxidising agent as well as acid
22. Which of the following has highest ionization energy?
  • 1s2, 2s2, 2p3
  • 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, sp4
  • As2, 2s2, 2p4
  • As2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p3
23. How many isomeric ether can be formed from C4H10O?
  • 2
  • 4
  • 3
  • 5
24. 10 mole of ideal gas at 27°C undergoes isothermal expansion resulting in doubled volume. The work done by the gas (R=1.98 cal) is
  • 41.3 x 10³
  • 4.13 x 10⁵
  • 4.13 x 10³
  • 413 x 10³ cal
25. The reactivity order of alkyl halides is
  • RCI > RI > RBr
  • RCI > RBr > RI
  • RI > RBr> RCI
  • RI > RCI > RBr
26. The end product, X is; CH3COOH --NH3---> A--- heat--> B----P2O5---> X
  • ethanamide
  • acid anhydride
  • acetonitrile
  • ethyl amine
27. An electric current of 0.25 ampere was passed through acidified water for 2 hours. What will be the volume of H2 produced at NTP? (1 coulomb of electricity produce 10⁻⁵ gm of water)
  • 0.108 l
  • 0.408 l
  • 0.216 l
  • 0.36 l
28. Which intermediate is formed on chlorination of isobutene in presence of peroxide?
  • tert-butyl free radical
  • tert-butyl carbocation
  • tert-butyl carbanion
  • carbene
29. A toothpaste has 0.20g/l fluoride, its concentration in ppm is
  • 150
  • 250
  • 200
  • 400
30. During the estimation of halogens, sodium extract is first boiled with nitric acid so as to
  • Increase the solubility of AgNO3
  • Make silver halides insoluble
  • Decompose NaCN and Na2S
  • Dissolve AgCN
31. Two waves each of loudness 'L' superimpose to produce beats. The maximum loudness of beats will be:
  • L
  • 4L
  • 2L
  • 6L
32. The magnification of an astronomical telescope is 5. The power of its eye-piece is +10D. What is the power of its objective lens?
  • +4D
  • -2D
  • +2D
  • +1D
33. A simple pendulum has time period T1 when on earth's surface and T2 when taken to a height R above the earth's surface (where R the radius of the earth) then the value of T2/T1 is
  • 4
  • 2
  • √2
  • 1
34. X ray is produced at 50KV. The minimum wavelength of x ray emitted is:
  • 0.25 Å
  • 2.5 Å
  • 5 Å
  • 0.5 Å
35. The correct sequence of electromagnetic wave in decreasing order of frequency:
  • X-ray, visible ray, microwave
  • Infra-red, visible ray, UV-ray
  • X-ray, visible ray, UV-ray
  • microwave, UV-ray, X-ray
36. If 1500 cal of heat is supplied to a system and 1000J of work is done, what is increase in internal energy?
  • 2000J
  • 5000J
  • 4300 J
  • 6000
37. A cylinder contains 150cc of ideal gas at 27°C and 650 mm pressure. On constant pressure, the volume of gas at 0°C is:
  • 130 cc
  • 136.5 cc
  • 140cc
  • 150cc
38. Two tuning fork A and B sounded together to produce 5 beats. The frequency of B 512 Hz. When fork A is filed and sounded together, the beat frequency increases. The frequency of A is:
  • 502Hz
  • 517Hz
  • 517Hz
  • 5.17Hz
39. In electromagnetic wave, orientation of electric and magnetic waves is
  • 90°
  • 180°
  • 120°
40. The resultant of two force 3P and 2P is R. If the first force is doubled then the resultant is also doubled. The angle between the force is:
  • 45°
  • 60°
  • 90°
  • 120°
41. The velocity of light in a glass of refractive index 1.5 is 2 x 10⁸ m/s. the refractive index of liquid is
  • 1.44
  • 1.2
  • 0.64
  • 0.8
42. Work done in capacitor of capacitance C and charge Q is W. If the charge is doubled then what is new the new work done?
  • 2W
  • 8W
  • 4W
  • 6W
43. 2 grams of copper is deposited in a voltameter in 30 minutes at 12 volt. What mass is deposited at 6 volt and for time of 45 minutes?
  • 0.5 gm
  • 1.5 gm
  • 4gm
  • 38m
44. In a projectile thrown at the same angles the velocity of A is two times of velocity of B their ranges are related as
  • Ra = 2Rb
  • Ra = 4Rb
  • Rb = 2Ra
  • Rb = 4Ra
45. A body of mass 200 gm is thrown upwards with initial velocity of 30m/s. what is total energy of body at height of 20 m from ground?
  • 50 J
  • 100 J
  • 40 J
  • 90 J
46. A faulty thermometer with lower fixed point and upper fixed points(5°C and 95°C) resp. What is correct temperature when the reading give 35°C?
  • 60°C
  • 40°C
  • 33.3°C
  • 25°C
47. Particle nature of light is shown by
  • photoelectric effect
  • velocity of light
  • diffraction
  • refraction
48. A cylinder of 500m³ capacity contains He at 27°C and at 1 atm pressure. If the temperature changes to -3°C and 0.5 atm the new volume of gas is
  • 500 m³
  • 900 m³
  • 400m³
  • 150 m³
49. The power of combination of convex and concave lens is +4 D. If the power of lens is 4D, the focal length of concave lens is
  • 100 cm
  • -1 cm
  • 40 cm
50. The resistance of 20 cm length of wire is 5 ohms. When the wire is stretched to 40 cm length, the new resistance becomes
  • 10 ohm
  • 20 ohm
  • 40 ohm
  • 2.54 ohm
51. Amphids present in ventrolateral lips of Ascaris are
  • Chemoreceptor
  • Gustatoreceptors
  • Olfactoreceptors
  • Tactoreceptors
52. Which stage of plasmodium escapes the digestion in the gut of mosquito?
  • Sporocytes
  • Gametocytes
  • Trophozoites
  • Merozoites
53. HIV invades
  • T cells
  • Helper T-cells
  • Suppressor cells
  • Killer cells
54. Succus entericus is secreted by
  • Brunner's gland
  • Stomach
  • Crypts of Lieberkuhn
  • Colon
55. Alpha-interferon and Lamivudine are used in treatment of
  • Hepatitis
  • Malaria
  • AIDS
  • Diarrhea
56. Carbonic anhydrase is present in
  • WBC
  • Plasma
  • Erythrocytes
  • Platelets
57. Nerve cord of earthworm is
  • Dorsal and hollow
  • Ventral and hollow
  • Dorsal and Solid
  • Ventral and Solid
58. Pernicious anaemia is caused due to deficiency of
  • Ascorbic acid
  • Calciferol
  • Cyanocobalamine
  • Thiamine
59. The function of clitellum in pheretima is
  • Cocoon formation
  • Fertilization
  • Nutrition
  • Copulation
60. Increasing the concentration of DDT to the higher trophic levels is called
  • Pollution
  • Eutrophication
  • Biochemical oxygen demand
  • Biomagnification
61. The main difference between male and female cockroach is
  • Anal styles
  • Anal cerci
  • Antennae
  • Eyes
62. Which substance in plasmodium cause fever and chills?
  • Haematin
  • Sporozoite
  • Haemozoin
  • Schuffner's granules
63. Which cause acid rain and affects the respiratory system?
  • Nitric acid
  • Lead nitrate
  • CO2
  • SO2
64. In Diapedesis which of the following squeezes out of the narrow capillaries?
  • RBC
  • Plasma
  • Platelets
  • WBC
65. Orra serrata is present in
  • Scleroid
  • Cornea
  • Retina
  • Conjunctiva
66. How many daughter paramecia are formed from conjugation in paramecia?
  • 6
  • 4
  • 8
  • 2
67. Which of the following is an echinodermata?
  • Sepia
  • Devil fish
  • Sea urchin
  • Hydra
68. Ink gland are found in
  • Octopus
  • Oyster
  • Cuttle fish
  • Hydra
69. Ecological niche of an species is
  • Inter relationship between communities
  • Inter relation between organism
  • Space it occupies
  • Habitat it occupies
70. In which class of platyhelminthes alimentary canal is absent?
  • Trematods
  • Turbellaria
  • Cestoda
  • Anthozoa
71. The main function of contractile vacuole in paramecium is
  • Locomotion
  • Water storage
  • Osmoregulation
  • Circulation
72. Fatty liver syndrome is due to
  • Antibiotics
  • Smoking
  • Alcohol
  • Cannabis
73. The main excretory organ of annelid is
  • Flame cell
  • Malphigian tubule
  • Kidney
  • Nephridium
74. Ligamentum arteriosus connects
  • Left ventricle and right auricle
  • Pulmonary trunk and aortic arch
  • SA node and AV node
  • Aorta and pulmonary vein
75. In action potential during nerve impulse transmission, the repolarisation is due to the entry of
  • Ca
  • K
  • Na
  • Mg
76. Which feature is different in between birds and mammals?
  • Parental care
  • 7 cervical vertebra
  • Aortic arch
  • Metanephric kidney
77. The ridges and finger prints in the hands is due to
  • Dermal papillae
  • Stratum lucidium
  • Stratum granulosum
  • Stratum germinativum
78. Which of the following has nervous tissues but no brain?
  • Amoeba
  • Fasciola
  • Taenia
  • Hydra
79. Migration in birds is as a result of
  • Breeding
  • For shelter
  • Daylight which affects endocrine glands
  • Food storage
80. The electron transfer system is present in
  • Chloroplast
  • Mitochondria
  • Lysosome
  • Cytoplasm
81. The superiority of hybrid over parents is called
  • Hybridization
  • Fertilization
  • Hybrid sterility
  • Heterosis
82. The filaments of cilia and flagella are composed of
  • Microfilaments
  • Fibrils
  • Microtubules
  • Microfibrils
83. The device which is used to nullify the effect of gravity is called
  • Photometer
  • Auxanometer
  • Photometer
  • Clinostat
84. In which of the following meiosis occur?
  • Zoospore
  • Zygospore
  • Ascospore
  • Basidiospore
85. In angiosperms the female gametophyte is
  • Synergids
  • Antipodals
  • Embryo sac
  • Egg apparatus
86. Virus, is composed of
  • Protein and nucleic acid
  • Protein and starch
  • Protein, RNA and DNA
  • Protein, Starch and Carbohydrates
87. Inhibition of photosynthesis with the increase in oxygen concentration is
  • Emersion enhancement effect
  • Blackman effect
  • Red drop
  • Warburg effect
88. Which induces male flowers in place of female flowers?
  • Auxin
  • Cytokinin
  • Ethylene
  • Gibberellins
89. Agar agar and carageenin are obtained from
  • Brown algae
  • Red algae
  • Green algae
  • Blue-green algae
90. In prokaryotes the total no. of ATP produced in aerobic respiration is
  • 36
  • 2
  • 38
  • 34
91. The point which provides the site for the spindle attachment is called
  • Kinetochore
  • Primary constriction
  • Satellite
  • Secondary constriction
92. Protoderm is a part of
  • Floral bud
  • Cortex
  • Axillary bud
  • Shoot apex and Root apex
93. The study of growth rings of tree in relation to climate is called
  • Paleontology
  • Dendrology
  • Dendroclimatology
  • Ethnobotany
94. Nitrosomonas is
  • Photoautotroph
  • Anaerobe
  • Chemoautotroph
  • Symbiotic
95. Which of the following is common to prokaryotes and eukaryotes
  • Mitotic apparatus
  • Genetic code
  • Histones
  • Mitochondria
96. Photorespiration occurs in
  • Lysosomes
  • Peroxisomes
  • Centrioles
  • Mesosomes
97. Cane sugar on hydrolysis gives
  • Glucose and fructose
  • Glucose and galactose
  • Glucose and maltose
  • Glucose and sucrose
98. The point of attachment of ovule with funicle is called?
  • Chalaza
  • Micropyle
  • Hilum
  • Antipodals
99. Correct sequence of cell cycle is:
  • S, G1, G2, M
  • G1, S, G2, M
  • M1, G2, G1, S
  • G1, S, M, G2
100. Which of the following bacteria shows darting type of motility?
  • Vibrio
  • Coccus
  • Spirochaeta
  • Clostridium