1. Common Entrance Exam (CEE)
  2. 1. CEE 2024
    2. CEE 2023
    3. CEE 2022
    4. CEE 2021
  3. Institute of Medicine (IOM)
  4. 5. IOM 2017 (Re-exam)
    6. IOM 2017
    7. IOM 2016
    8. IOM 2014
    9. IOM 2013
    10. IOM 2012
    11. IOM 2011
    12. IOM 2010
    13. IOM 2010
    14. IOM 2009
    15. IOM 2009
    16. IOM 2008
    17. IOM 2007
    18. IOM 2006
    19. IOM 2005
    20. IOM 2004
    21. IOM 2003
    22. IOM 2002
    23. IOM 2001
    24. IOM 2000
    25. IOM 1999
    26. IOM 1998
  5. Kathmandu University Exam (KU)
  6. 27. KU 2018
    28. KU 2017
    29. KU 2016
    30. KU 2015
    31. KU 2014 (A)
    32. KU 2014 (B)
    33. KU 2013
    34. KU 2012
    35. KU 2011 Jan/ Feb
    36. KU 2010 Aug
    37. KU 2010 Jan/ Feb
    38. KU 2008
    39. KU 2006
    40. KU 2004
    41. KU 2003
    42. KU 2001
    43. KU 2000
  7. Patan Academy of Health Science (PAHS)
  8. 44. PAHS 2018
    45. PAHS 2017
Kathmandu University Exam (KU)
27. KU 2018
1. Highest penetrating power is of
  • Α-ray
  • Β-ray
  • X-ray
  • γ-ray
2. Which elementary particle is a lepton?

[Electron, Muon and Taun are leptons(light particles).]

  • Electron
  • Neutron
  • Proton
  • Quark
3. Potential energy source for inducing nuclear fusion reaction is
  • X-ray
  • Laser
  • Ultraviolet
  • Microwave
4. When dipole is rotated by 180° from stable equilibrium, the work done will be:
  • 2MB
  • MB
  • √2 MB
  • MB/√2
5. A thin rod of length f/3 is placed along the optical axis of a concave mirror of focal length f such that its image which is real and elongated just touches the rod. The length of the image is
  • f/2
  • F
  • 3f/4
  • 2f/3
6. Far sightedness is corrected by using
  • Convex lens
  • Concave lens
  • Bifocal lens
  • Cylindrical lens
7. A body moves such that u = at, the distance travelled by it in first 4 second is:
  • 8a
  • 4a
  • 2a
  • 12a
8. Which region of the electromagnetic spectrum includes waves with a frequency of 10^7 7 MHz?
  • Ultraviolet waves
  • Radio waves
  • Infra-red waves
  • X-rays
9. The opposite corners of a square contain equal charge Q and other opposite corners contain charge q. The net force on Q is zero if:
  • Q=−2q
  • Q=+2q
  • Q=−2√2 q
  • Q=2√2 q
10. The time period of a satellite orbiting in circular orbit around the Earth is independent of:
  • Both mass of satellite and radius of its orbit
  • Radius of its orbit
  • The mass of the satellite
  • Neither the mass of the satellite nor the radius of its orbit.
11. A cylinder piece of a soft, electrically conducting material has resistance R. It is rolled out so that its length is doubled but its volume stays constant. What is its new resistance?
  • R/2
  • 4R
  • 2R
  • R
12. A nucleus containing Z protons and N neutrons has mass M. If the mass of the proton is mp and that of neutron is mp , then the mass defect of the nucleus is:
  • Zm_p+Nm_n−M
  • M−Zm_p−Nm_n
  • M−Zm_p+Nm_n
  • Zm_p+Nm_n+M
13. The velocity of sound is generally greater in solids than in gases because:
  • The density of solid is high but the elasticity is low
  • Both the density and elasticity of solids are low
  • Elasticity of solids is very high
  • The density of solid is low but the elasticity is high
14. In one dimension elastic collision, when heavy mass collides with a lighter mass initially at rest,
  • Both of them stick together and move with same velocity
  • Heavy mass comes to rest and lighter mass moves with velocity of heavy mass
  • Velocity of heavy mass visible remains same and lighter mass moves in opposite direction with velocity approximately twice of heavy mass
  • Nothing can be said about velocity of lighter mass
15. Radius of n^th orbit is related to quantum number n as
  • 1/n
  • N
  • 1/n^2
  • n^2
16. An object is placed at a distance u from a simple microscope of focal length f. The angular magnification depends
  • On f but not on u
  • On u but on f
  • Of f as well as u
  • Neither on f nor u
17. The magnification of telescope in normal adjustment is

[Normal adjustment means final image at infinity.]

  • f_o/f_e
  • f_o×f_e
  • 2f_o×f_e
  • f_o+f_e
18. Unit of coefficient of viscosity is
  • N/(m^2 s^(−1) )
  • Nm^2 s^(−1)
  • (Nm^2)/s
  • (Nm^2)/s^2
19. At 30°C room temperature, the body takes 4 min to cool from 59°C to 61°C, then how much times does it take to cool from 49°C to 51°C?
  • 6 min
  • 5 min
  • 4 min
  • 8 min
20. Ratio of the rms velocity of H_2 molecule to the He atom at the same temperature is
  • √2:1
  • 2:1
  • 1/√2
  • 1:2
21. The ratio of centripetal force of two bodies having same mass moving with same velocity in radius of r_1 and r_2 is
  • r_2/r_1
  • √(r_2/r_1 )
  • √(r_1/r_2 )
  • r_1/r_2
22. A cylindrical block of wood has cross-sectional area A and weight W. It is totally immersed in water with its axis vertical. The block experiences pressures p_t and p_b at its top and bottom surfaces resprectively. Which expression is equal to the upthrust on the block?
  • (p_b−p_t )
  • (p_b−p_t )A
  • (p_b−p_t )A−W
  • (p_b−p_t )A+W
23. The maximum wavelength that can be set in a stretched string of length 'l' is
  • l/2
  • 2l
  • 4l
  • l/4
24. On doubling the frequency of R-C circuit, impedance
  • Decreases
  • Increases
  • Remains same
  • Doubles
25. A charged particle is in the electric field between two horizontal metal plates connected to a battery, as shown. There is a force F on the particle due to the electric field. The separation of the plates is doubled. What is the new force on the particle?
  • F/4
  • F/2
  • F
  • 2F
26. For diffraction to occur
  • The width of the object should be lesser than the wavelength
  • The width of the object should be greater than the wavelength
  • The width of the object should be comparable to the wavelength
  • The width of the object should be half of the wavelength
27. A current of 'I' flows in an electric circuit having a cell of emf E and internal resistance 'r'. The terminal p.d. across the end of cell is:
  • E+Ir
  • E-Ir
  • E+IR
  • Zero
28. Galvanometer is converted to ammeter
  • When a small resistance is connected in series
  • When a small resistance is connected in parallel
  • When a large resistance is connected in series
  • When a large resistance is connected in parallel
29. If uncertainty in position of a particle is equal to de-Broglie wavelength λ, the uncertainty in momentum of the particle is
  • 2h3λ
  • 2hλ
  • 3h2λ
30. What will reduce the systematic errors when taking a measurement?
  • Timing 20 oscillations, rather than a single oscillations, when finding the period of a pendulum
  • Measuring the diameter of a wire at different points and taking the average
  • Reducing the parallax effects by using a marker and a mirror when measuring the amplitude of oscillation of a pendulum
  • Adjusting the needle on a voltmeter so that it reads zero when there is no potential difference across it
31. An organic compound containing oxygen on oxidation gives only carboxylic acid, with change of molecular mass by 14 units. The organic compound is
  • Primary alcohol
  • Secondary alcohol
  • Aldehyde
  • Ketone
32. Reaction between CuO and HNO3 gives
  • CuNO3+H2O
  • Cu(NO3)2+H2O
  • Cu(NO3)2+H2
  • CuNO3+H2
33. Intermediate formed in Friedel Craft's alkylation of benzene is
  • CH3+
  • CH3-
  • Cl-
  • C6H5+
34. How many mole atoms are there in one mole of Ca3(PO4)2?
  • 13
  • 5
  • 8
  • 1
35. The bonding in magnesium oxide MgO, is
  • Ionic and covalent
  • Metallic and ionic
  • Ionic only
  • Metallic and covalent
36. The correct sequence of reactions to be performed to convert benzene into m-bromoaniline is
  • Nitration, Bromination, Reduction
  • Bromination, Nitration, Reduction
  • Nitration, Reduction, Bromination
  • Reduciton, Nitration, Bromination
37. The chemical properties of an element are determined by its
  • Number of protons plus neutrons
  • Number of neutrons
  • Electronic structure
  • Number of protons
38. Going across the Periodic table from sodium to aluminium,
  • The radius of atom increases
  • The melting temperature increases
  • The radius of the metal ion increases
  • The bonding in the element changes from metallic to covalent
39. When ammonium nitrate crystals dissolve in water, the entropy of the system
  • Remains the same
  • Falls, because the hydrated ions are more ordered than the solid
  • Rises, because the ions are arranged more randomly in the solution than in the crystal
  • Rises, because the ions in the crystal become hydrated in the solution
40. The hydrocarbon which can react with sodium in liquid ammonia is
  • CH_3 CH_3 C≡CH
  • CH_3 CH_2 C≡CCH_2 CH_3
  • CH_3 CH_2 CH_2 C≡CCH_2 CH_2 CH_3
  • CH_3 CHCHCH_3
41.
  • 2-methyl butan-2-ol
  • 2-methyl butan-3-ol
  • Propan-2-ol
  • 3-methyl butan-2-ol
42. The flame produced by a compound containing barium in a flame test is
  • Red
  • Yellow
  • Colourless
  • Green
43. For the equilibrium reaction, A+B→ C+D, △G^o=−340 KJ
  • Reaction is instantaneous
  • Equilibrium constant is more than 1
  • Change in entropy is negative
  • The reaction is not feasible
44. The best method for separating a mixture of amino acids in solution is
  • Chromatography
  • Solvent extraction
  • Distillation
  • Recrystallization
45. A hazard that is particularly associated with alkanes is that they are
  • Corrosive
  • Flammable
  • Toxic by inhalation
  • Toxic by skin absorption
46. Nylon is a
  • Polyamide
  • Polyester
  • Amide
  • Ester
47. Number of isotopes of Palladium is
  • 6
  • 7
  • 9
  • 11
48. T.E.L. is used as
  • An anti-knock agent
  • It decreases efficiency of petrol
  • It is highly combustible
  • A knocking agnet
49. The reaction A⇌B has an equilibrium constant of K=10^(−4). Which one of the following statemens is always correct?
  • The reaction will have 50% product B and 50% reactant A at equilibrium
  • The reaction is unfavourable and will not have very much product B at equilibrium
  • The reaction is very favourable and will have mostly product B at equilibrium
  • The equilibrium constant only relates to the speed of a reaction and not to the amount of product formed
50. Formation of cyanohydrin is
  • Nucleophilic addition reaction
  • Electrophilic addition reaction
  • Nucleophilic substitution reaction
  • Electrophilic substitution reaction
51. Which of the following set of quantum numbers is correct for 4f?
  • N=4. l=3, m=1, s=+1/2
  • n=4, l=4, m=1, s=−1/2
  • n=4, l=2, m=−2, s=−1/2
  • n=3, l=3, m=−4, s=+1/2
52. When chloroethane is heated with a concentrated solution of potassium hydroxide in ethanol, the reaction which occurs is
  • Substitution
  • Hydrolysis
  • Elimination
  • Redox
53. Number of moles of sodium required to prepare 4.5 litres of 1.5M solution is:
  • 6.75
  • 0.33
  • 0.3
  • 67.5
54. Not all molecules will absorb infrared radiation. Those that do
  • Undergo homolytic fission
  • Change their dipole moment when their bonds stretch or bend
  • Must be polar
  • Are always organic substances
55. Chlorine has two isotopes with relative isotopic mass 35 and 37. Four m/Z values are given below. What will occur in a mass spectrum of chlorine gas, Cl2 from an ion with a single positive charge?

[The case of Cl2, peak is obtained when the two isotopes of Cl-35 and 37 combine i.e., at 72.]

  • 35.5
  • 36
  • 72
  • 71
56. The relative atomic weight of carbon in Na_2 CO_3 is:
  • 12
  • 36
  • 48
  • 60
57. Hydrated form of sodium carbonte is
  • Na_2 CO_3.H_2 O
  • Na_2 CO_4.10H_2 O
  • Na_2 CO_3.10H_2 O
  • Na_2 CO_3.(H_2 O)_5
58. On doubling the concentration of reactant, rate constant:
  • Remains same
  • Increases
  • Decreases
  • Double
59. Which of the following best defines the meaning of the term anthropogenic change? It is a change caused by
  • Nature
  • Plants
  • Animals
  • Humans
60. General method for the extraction of metal from oxide ore is
  • Carbon reduction
  • Reduction by aluminium
  • Reduction by hydrogen
  • Electrolytic reduction
61.
  • Auxin
  • Giberellin
  • Cytokinin
  • Ethylene
62. The only dicot plant having isobilateral leaves is
  • Eucalyptus
  • Wheat
  • Mango
  • Banyan
63. Concentric vascular bundles are:
  • Always open
  • Always closed
  • May be open or closed
  • Endarch
64. Which of th efollowing moves towards the tip of root hair arising from the epidermal cells?
  • Cytoplasm
  • Nucleus
  • Mitochondria
  • Ribosome
65. The fusion between mother cells with daughter/ sister cells in yeast is:
  • Pedogamy
  • Pseudogamy
  • Adelphogamy
  • Conjugation
66. Growth of pollen tube is controlled by
  • Vegetative nucleus
  • Tube nucleus
  • Generative nucleus
  • Synergid cells
67. Which food is used by fungal partner made by algal partner in lichen?
  • Starch
  • Mannitol
  • Glycogen
  • Sugar
68. The largest angiospermic family is
  • Compositae
  • Graminae
  • Brassicae
  • Liliaceae
69. Manganese is largely found in
  • Ribosomes
  • Mitochondria
  • Chloroplast
  • Cell wall
70. Large size of thylakoid is called
  • Stroma lamella
  • Grana lamella
  • Grana
  • Loculus
71. Inner layer of exine is:
  • Endexine
  • Sexine
  • Nexine
  • Tectum
72. Which of following occurs in metaphase?
  • All the chromatids lie at same plane
  • Chromosomes get condense
  • Cells don’t divide
  • Nucleus and nuclear membrane reappear
73. Photosynthesis is maximum in
  • Red light
  • Blue light
  • White lighte
  • Green light
74. Plants growing in Savannah biome is called:
  • Psilophytes
  • Psammophytes
  • Oxylophytes
  • Eremophytes
75. Movement of water along with minerals from topsoil to subsoil is
  • Percolation
  • Leaching
  • Conduction
  • Squeezing
76. Tallest pteridophytes is
  • Alsophila
  • Cythea
  • Pteris
  • Dryopteris
77. Chloroplast is found in spores of
  • Riccia and Marchantia
  • Funaria and Equisetum
  • Funaria and Sphagnum
  • Funaria and Anthoceros
78. The red algae which is not red and not marine is:
  • Trichodesmium erythrium
  • Batrachospermum
  • Polysiphonia
  • Gracillaria
79. Guard cell of the stoma is
  • Kidney shaped
  • Convex shaped
  • Longitudinal and cylindrical shaped
  • Dumb bell shaped
80. Endosperm of gymnosperm is
  • Haploid
  • Diploid
  • Triploid
  • None
81. The hereditary character is determined by gene. It helps in synthesis of
  • Protein
  • Chromosome
  • DNA
  • Allele
82. Cilia is present in
  • Alveoli
  • Oesophagus
  • Bronchioles
  • Intestine
83. Infective stage of Plasmodium is:
  • Sporozoite
  • Trophozoite
  • Merozoite
  • Cryptozoite
84. Pseudocoelom is present in
  • Aschelminthes
  • Mollusca
  • Annelida
  • Arthropoda
85. Excretory organ of Mollusca is
  • Kidney
  • Nephridia
  • Solenocytes
  • Flame cell
86. Ascaris lumbricoides belongs to the phylum:
  • Nematoda
  • Platyhelminthe
  • Mollusca
  • Echinodermata
87. Honey comb like structure in the stomach of ruminant is:
  • Rumen
  • Reticulum
  • Omasum
  • Abomasum
88. Avian influenza is:
  • Type A
  • Type B
  • Type C
  • Type D
89. Spines and Warts are adaptational features of
  • Terrestrial
  • Volant
  • Aquatic
  • Arboreal
90. Pneumatic bones is present in
  • Desert
  • Fossorial
  • Volant
  • Cursorial
91. Tuberculosis is caused by
  • Salmonella
  • Mycobacterium
  • Pneumococcus
  • Bacterium
92. Migration of bird is affected by
  • Gonadotropic hormone
  • Thyrotropic hormone
  • Somatostatin
  • Adrenal hormone
93. Cornea transplantation is most successful because:
  • It is avascular i.e. devoid of blood supply
  • It is dead cell
  • It respires from atmosphere
  • It doesn't need nutrition
94. Bile product is released in
  • Duodenum
  • Stomach
  • Ileum
  • Jejunum
95. α-cells of the pancreas secrete
  • Somatostatin
  • Insulin
  • Glucagon
  • C-peptile
96. In which class of Arthropoda, centipede falls?
  • Chilopoda
  • Diplopoda
  • Onychophora
  • Archiannelida
97. Receptors for neurons are found at
  • One end of sensory neuron
  • Both ends of sensory neuron
  • All over sensory neuron
  • Both ends of motor neuron
98. Cyclosis in paramecium is associated with
  • Reproduction
  • Locomotion
  • Digestion
  • Excretion
99. Which of the following cannot be prevented by vaccination?
  • Cervical cancer
  • Asthma
  • Hepatitis B
  • Measles
100. AIDS virus attacks
  • Lymphocytes
  • T cells
  • Helper T cells
  • B cells