1. Common Entrance Exam (CEE)
  2. 1. CEE 2024
    2. CEE 2023
    3. CEE 2022
    4. CEE 2021
  3. Institute of Medicine (IOM)
  4. 5. IOM 2017 (Re-exam)
    6. IOM 2017
    7. IOM 2016
    8. IOM 2014
    9. IOM 2013
    10. IOM 2012
    11. IOM 2011
    12. IOM 2010
    13. IOM 2010
    14. IOM 2009
    15. IOM 2009
    16. IOM 2008
    17. IOM 2007
    18. IOM 2006
    19. IOM 2005
    20. IOM 2004
    21. IOM 2003
    22. IOM 2002
    23. IOM 2001
    24. IOM 2000
    25. IOM 1999
    26. IOM 1998
  5. Kathmandu University Exam (KU)
  6. 27. KU 2018
    28. KU 2017
    29. KU 2016
    30. KU 2015
    31. KU 2014 (A)
    32. KU 2014 (B)
    33. KU 2013
    34. KU 2012
    35. KU 2011 Jan/ Feb
    36. KU 2010 Aug
    37. KU 2010 Jan/ Feb
    38. KU 2008
    39. KU 2006
    40. KU 2004
    41. KU 2003
    42. KU 2001
    43. KU 2000
  7. Patan Academy of Health Science (PAHS)
  8. 44. PAHS 2018
    45. PAHS 2017
Institute of Medicine (IOM)
13. IOM 2010
1. When \(NH_4Cl\) is added to \(NH_4OH\), its pH:
  • Decreases
  • Remains unchanged
  • Increases
  • Zero
2. The number of molecules of \(CaCO_3\) that remains when 1 mole of \(CaCO_3\) is allowed to react with 1 mole of \(HCl\) are:
  • 1.2 × 1024
  • 6.02 × 1023
  • 0 × 10
  • 3.01 × 1023
3. 60 gm of compound on analysis produced 24gm carbon, 4 gm hydrogen and 32 gm oxygen. The empirical formula of compound is:
  • \(CH_2O_2\)
  • \(CH_4O\)
  • \(CH_2O\)
  • \(C_2H_4O_2\)
4. Oxone which is used to bleach delicate fiber is a mixture of:
  • \(Na_2O_2\) and dilute \(HCl\)
  • Mixture of \(Na_2CO_3\), \(NaHCO_3\) and \(H_2O_2\)
  • Mixture of \(H_2O_2\) and \(NaHCO_3\)
  • Mixture of \(H_2O_2\) and \(Na_2O_2\)
5. In the reaction: \(KMnO_4 (aq) + H_2SO_4 → MnSO_4 (aq) + K_2SO_4 (aq) + H_2O(l) + O_3(g)\), Mn is:
  • Oxidized
  • Reduced
  • Nothing happened as it is present in product side also
  • No change in oxidation state
6. Both phenol and ethyl alcohol contain -OH group but phenol is much acidic than ethyl alcohol due to the:
  • Inductive effect
  • Mesomeric effect
  • Resonance effect
  • Electromeric effect
7. When ethyl alcohol is heated with excess of concentrated sulphuric acid at about 160-170°C, it produces:
  • Ethane
  • Ethyne
  • Ethyl ether
  • Ethene
8. Calomel is:
  • Ferrous sulphate
  • Ferric chloride
  • Mercurous chloride
  • Zinc sulphate
9. How many moles of \(CO_2\) are present in 220 g of it.
  • 5 moles
  • 0.05 moles
  • 0.005 mole
  • 0.5 mole
10. Chlorine acts as a bleaching agent in the presence of?
  • Dry air
  • Sunlight
  • Moisture
  • Pure oxygen
11. Nature of bond formed when two elements react depend upon:
  • Ionisation potential
  • Electron affinity
  • Electro-negativity
  • Oxidation potential
12. Aqueous solution of \(SO_2\) reacts with \(H_2S\) to precipitate sulphur. Here \(SO_2\) acts as:
  • Acid
  • Reducing agent
  • Oxidizing agent
  • Dehydrating agent
13. The reaction at cathode during the electrolysis of aqueous solution of \(NaCl\) is:
  • \(2H^+ + 2e^- → H_2\)
  • \(Na^+ + e^- → Na\)
  • \(2Cl^- → Cl_2 + 2e^-\)
  • \(2H_2O + 2e^- → H_2 + 2OH^-\)
14. If the rate of reaction becomes twice for every 10°C rise in temperature, by what factor rate of reaction increases when temperature is increased from 25°C to 75°C?
  • 10
  • 32
  • 16
  • 64
15. Rusting of iron in moist air involves:
  • Loss of electrons by Fe
  • Dehydration of Fe
  • Gain of electrons by Fe
  • Hydration of Fe
16. \(CHCl_3\) is stored in dark coloured bottles, because:
  • It is anaesthetic
  • In light it is oxidized to \(COCl_2\) (phosgene)
  • In light it is oxidized to \(CCl_4\)
  • In light it is reduced to \(CH_2Cl_2\)
17. Liquor poisoning is due the presence of:
  • Carbonic acid
  • Methyl alcohol
  • Ethyl alcohol
  • Bad compound
18. A sample of water from a well in Terai contains 0.1gm Arsenic per litre. What is the concentration of Arsenic in ppm?
  • 1ppm
  • 100ppm
  • 10ppm
  • 1000ppm
19. When two atoms of hydrogen combine to form a molecule of hydrogen gas. The energy of the molecule is:
  • Higher than that of the separate atoms
  • Equal to that of the separate atoms
  • Lower than that of the separate atoms
  • Sometimes lower and sometimes higher
20. Dehydration of ethanol yields:
  • Mixture of ethylene and ethoxyethane
  • Ethylene
  • Ethoxy ethane
  • Ethyne
21. The atomic number of Nitrogen is 7 and the atomic number of Oxygen is 8. The total number of electrons in a Nitrate ion (\(NO_3^{2-}\)) is:
  • 15
  • 30
  • 20
  • 32
22. When \(C_2H_5OH\) is treated with acidic \(K_2Cr_2O_7\) it forms \(CH_3CHO\). It is an example of:
  • Hydrolysis
  • Reduction
  • Oxidation
  • Rearrangement
23. The atomic number of Nitrogen is 7 and the atomic number of Oxygen is 8. The total number of electrons in a Nitrate ion (\(NO_3^{-1}\)) is:
  • 15
  • 30
  • 20
  • 32
24. One kilogram of water contains 4gm of \(NaOH\). The concentration of the solution is best expressed as:
  • 0.1 molal
  • Decinormal
  • 0.1 molar
  • 0.1 mole
25. Which of the following has highest boiling point:
  • \(CH_3NH_2\)
  • \(CH_3OH\)
  • \(CH_3CH_3\)
  • \(HCOOH\)
26. If one mole of methane is converted into products, then which one of the following statement is true?
  • One mole of Oxygen is consumed
  • One mole of Water is formed
  • One mole of Carbon dioxide is formed
  • One mole of Oxygen is left behind
27. Which one of the following complex compound has an incorrect formula?
  • Diamine Silver Chloride - \([Ag(NH_3)_2]Cl\)
  • Ferric Ferro Cyanide - \(Fe_4[Fe(CN)_6]\)
  • Azure blue complex of Copper Sulphate \([Cu(NH_3)_4]SO_4\)
  • Sodium Nitropruside - \(Na_2[Fe(CN)_5NO]\)
28. Which of the following are Isomers?
  • Propanoic acid and Methyl methanoate
  • Methyl alcohol and Dimethyl ether
  • Acetone and Acetaldehyde
  • Ethyl alcohol and Dimethyl ether
29. A solution of Sodium in liquid Ammonia is blue due to the presence of:
  • Solvated electrons
  • Solvated Sodium ions
  • Ammonium ions
  • Sodium atoms
30. Which of the following electronic configuration given for some neutral atoms would be expected to have highest second ionization energy \(IE_2\)?
  • \(1s^2 2s^2\)
  • \(1s^2 2s^2 2p^4\)
  • \(1s^2 2s^2 2p^1\)
  • \(1s^2 2s^2 2p^3\)
31. When temperature of gas is increased its viscosity:
  • Remains constant
  • Increases
  • Decreases
  • First decreases then increases
32. The maximum wavelengths, emitted by the sun at the temperatures (in Kelvin) T1, T2 and T3 are 650 nm, 580 nm and 350 nm respectively. Which one of the following is correct?
  • T1 > T2; T1 > T3
  • T3 > T1; T3 > T2
  • T2 > T1; T2 > T3
  • T1 = T2 = T3
33. Two ebonite rods A and B of radii 1.5cm and 2cm respectively are rubbed together. The result will be:
  • A and B both remain neutral
  • A will be charged positively
  • A will be charged negatively
  • Both A and B will be charged equally with similar charge
34. Power of ionization of a gamma particle is:
  • More than that of an alpha particle
  • More than that of a beta particle
  • Less than those of alpha beta particle and more than these of beta particle
  • Less than both alpha and beta particle
35. Activity of 1.85×1012 disintegration per second is nearly equivalent to:
  • 40 curie
  • 30 curie
  • 50 curie
  • 60 curie
36. The specific gravity of sugar is 1.59. Which is its correct density in S.I. system?
  • 1.59
  • 159
  • 15.9
  • 1590
37. If a baseball player can throw a ball to maximum distance = d over a ground, what is the maximum vertical height to which he can throw it? (Assume same initial speed):
  • d
  • d/4
  • d/2
  • 2d
38. When an elastic material with Young's modulus 'Y' is subjected to a stretching stress 'S', the elastic energy stored per unit volume is:
  • YS²
  • S²/2Y
  • S²Y/2
  • S/2Y
39. Two drops of water having same radius moving in air downwards with constant velocity v. If the drops coalesced, what will be the new velocity:
  • 21/3 v
  • (22/3-1)v
  • 22/3 v
  • (21/3-1)v
40. The radius of hydrogen atom in the ground state is 0.53 Å. After excitation, it is found that this radius increases to 2.12 Å. The value of principal quantum number will be:
  • 5
  • 3
  • 4
  • 2
41. What is the value of -40 Fahrenheit in Celsius scale?
  • -104°C
  • 8°C
  • -40°C
  • 20°C
42. What is the potential drop across an electric hot plate which draws 5 A when it is hot and resistance is 24Ω?
  • 120V
  • 140V
  • 130V
  • 150V
43. A refrigerator has to transfer an average of 263J of heat per second from -10°C to 25°C. The average power consumed by the refrigerator is:
  • 10W
  • 20W
  • 35W
  • 40W
44. A tube closed at one end containing air when excited produces the fundamental note of frequency 512 Hz. If the tube is open at both ends the fundamental frequency that can be excited is:
  • 1024 Hz
  • 256 Hz
  • 512 Hz
  • 128 Hz
45. The pendulum of clock is made of brass. If the clock keeps correct time at 20°C, how many seconds per day will it lose at 35°C? (αbrass = 2×10-5 °C-1)
  • 12.3 secs
  • 36.9 secs
  • 24.6 secs
  • 49.2 secs
46. A body cools down from 65°C to 60°C in 5 minutes. It will cool down 60°C to 55°C in:
  • 5 minutes
  • Less than 5 minute
  • More than 5 minutes
  • Less than or more than 5 minutes depending on whether its mass is more than or less than 1 kg
47. An object is placed at a distance 'u' from a simple microscope of focal length 'f'. The angular magnification obtained depends:
  • On 'f' but not on 'u'
  • On 'f' as well as 'u'
  • On 'u' but not on 'f'
  • Neither on 'f' nor on 'u'
48. A parallel plate capacitor is charged and the charging battery is then disconnected. If the plates are moved further apart:
  • The charge on the capacitor increases
  • The voltage across the plate increases
  • The capacitance increases
  • The electrostatic energy stored in the capacitor decreases
49. A thin stream of water from a tap is attracted by placing a rod near it. The rod is:
  • The south pole of the magnet
  • Charged with static electricity
  • The north pole of the magnet
  • Any non-magnetic substance
50. If the current in an electric bulb drops by 2%, the power decreases by:
  • 1%
  • 4%
  • 2%
  • 16%
51. Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium is found in:
  • Trachea
  • Lining of blood vessel
  • Mouth cavity
  • Epidermis
52. Histamine is secreted by:
  • Fibroblast
  • Mast cells
  • Chondroblast
  • Histocytes
53. Nematocysts in hydra paralyze prey by secreting a poisonous substance called:
  • Heparin
  • Hypnotoxin
  • Histamine
  • Neurotoxin
54. Glucagon is a hormone secreted from:
  • Pineal body
  • Pancreas
  • Liver
  • Pituitary body
55. Elongated muzzle and backwardly inverted spines in the Porcupine are the characteristics of:
  • Aquatic adaptation
  • Amphibious adaptation
  • Volant adaptation
  • Fossorial adaptation
56. Skeleton and muscles in a vertebrate embryo develop from:
  • Ectoderm and Endoderm
  • Ectoderm only
  • Ectoderm and mesoderm
  • Mesoderm only
57. The most dangerous species of Plasmodium is:
  • Malariae
  • Ovale
  • Falciparum
  • Vivax
58. Graafian follicles are found in:
  • Testes
  • Stomach
  • Ovary
  • Spleen
59. The bone of mammals contains longitudinal Haversian canals, which are connected by transverse canals called:
  • Bidder's canal
  • Volkmann's canal
  • Inguinal canal
  • Eustachian canal
60. Which animal has a free living mode of feeding or nutrition?
  • Plasmodium
  • Fasciola
  • Ancylostoma
  • Planaria
61. Which animal Phylum has the characteristic of polymorphism?
  • Annelida
  • Porifera
  • Coelenterata
  • Protozoa
62. Which class of the Phylum Platyhelminthes has been assigned to Schistosoma?
  • Turbellaria
  • Cestoda
  • Trematoda
  • Digenea
63. Water vascular system is a characteristic feature of the Phylum:
  • Annelida
  • Mollusca
  • Echinodermata
  • Chordata
64. The right auriculo-ventricular aperture in rabbit is guarded by:
  • Bicuspid valve
  • Spiral valve
  • Semilunar valve
  • Tricuspid valve
65. Rete testis is part of:
  • Seminiferous tubules
  • Epididymis
  • Vasa efferentia
  • Vas deferens
66. Gigantism is caused due to hypersecretion of:
  • Pituitary gland
  • Adrenal gland
  • Thyroid gland
  • Thymus gland
67. Reflex action is exhibited by:
  • Brain
  • Spinal cord
  • Autonomic nervous system
  • Peripheral nervous system
68. Which one of the following is an echinoderm?
  • Sea urchin
  • Octopus
  • Sea cow
  • Oyster
69. Syngamy occurs during the formation of:
  • Zygote
  • Spores
  • Gametes
  • Bud
70. During hibernation and aestivation, the respiration in frog is:
  • Pulmonary
  • Cutaneous
  • Branchial
  • Buccopharyngeal
71. Serum is:
  • Plasma
  • Plasma minus Calcium ions
  • Plasma minus Fibrinogen
  • Plasma minus Gamma globulines
72. Carrier of genetic information is:
  • ADP
  • DNA
  • ATP
  • RNA
73. Which primate is the closest relative of man?
  • Orangutan
  • Gorilla
  • Pithecanthropus
  • Gibbon
74. 'Dengue Fever' is caused by the bite of:
  • Aedes mosquito
  • Anopheles mosquito
  • Culex mosquito
  • Cimex
75. The total duration of cardiac cycle is:
  • 0.2 sec
  • 0.6 sec
  • 0.3 sec
  • 0.8 sec
76. Hormone which regulates metamorphosis of tadpole is:
  • Pituitrin
  • Thyroxin
  • ACTH
  • TSH
77. Octopus belongs to:
  • Mollusca
  • Echinodermata
  • Mammalia
  • Coelenterata
78. Blastopore in the vertebrates develop into:
  • Anus
  • Body cavity
  • Mouth
  • Mouth and anus
79. Anadromous fishes move from:
  • Estuarine water to sea
  • Sea water to fresh water
  • Sea water to sea water
  • Fresh water to sea water
80. Organ of Corti cells are related with:
  • Sight
  • Body epithelium
  • Hearing
  • Taste
81. In a flowering plant when pollen grains of a flower are transferred to the stigma of another flower on the same plant, it is known as:
  • Autogamy
  • Allogamy
  • Geitonogamy
  • Xenogamy
82. The element that is not very mobile and remains fixed to mitochondria and chlorophyll is:
  • Potassium
  • Calcium
  • Sulphur
  • Iron
83. The nitrifying bacteria convert:
  • Nitrates to nitrites
  • Nitrites to ammonia
  • Nitrites to nitrates
  • Ammonia to nitrates
84. Which group of plants assimilates maximum CO2 annually by means of photosynthesis?
  • Angiosperms
  • Pteridophytes
  • Algae
  • Gymnosperms
85. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is used for:
  • Amino acid synthesis
  • Protein synthesis
  • DNA amplification
  • DNA synthesis
86. Every carbohydrate is:
  • Ribose and deoxyribose
  • Triose and Tetrose
  • Pentose and hexose
  • Aldose and Ketose
87. Totipotency refers to the:
  • Potentiality of a living plant cell to grow into a new plant
  • Potentiality of a living animal cell to grow into a new species
  • Potentiality of higher plants to reproduce asexually
  • Fusion of gametes during sexual reproduction
88. The process of chain elongation of amino acids during protein synthesis is called:
  • Translation
  • Proteination
  • Transcription
  • Putrefaction
89. The bacteria which grow best as aerobes but can grow without oxygen also are:
  • Facultative aerobes
  • Obligate aerobes
  • Facultative anaerobes
  • Obligate anaerobes
90. The molecular similarities in the structure of DNA, RNA and comparable proteins help:
  • To establish genera
  • To establish species
  • To establish relationship of organism
  • To establish evolutionary significance
91. The sporangia of fern develop on:
  • Roots
  • Rhizoids
  • Stems
  • Leaves
92. Agaricus the edible mushroom belongs to:
  • Oomycetes
  • Ascomycetes
  • Zygomycetes
  • Basidiomycetes
93. Which of the following is parasitic form of algae?
  • Spirogyra
  • Oedogonium
  • Cephaleuros
  • Oscillatoria
94. The end product of glycolysis in plant is:
  • Ethanol
  • Pyruvic acid
  • Lactic acid
  • Acetyl Co-A
95. Viruses have:
  • DNA enclosed in protein coat
  • Prokaryotic nucleus
  • DNA enclosed in a nuclear membrane
  • Membrane attached DNA
96. Water rises through the xylem mainly by:
  • Transpiration
  • Capillarity
  • Imbibition
  • Osmosis
97. Which of the following is used in industrial preparation of ethanol?
  • Nostoc
  • Marchantia
  • Saccharomyces
  • Azotobacter
98. Lichens represent symbiosis between:
  • Algae and fungi
  • Algae and bacteria
  • Viruses and algae
  • Viruses and bacteria
99. Viviparous germination can be observed in:
  • Ordinary plants
  • Epiphytes
  • Pteridophytes
  • Halophytes
100. Which one of the following group of plants is devoid of true nucleus?
  • Bryophytes
  • Fungi
  • Blue-green algae
  • Pteridophytes