1. Common Entrance Exam (CEE)
  2. 1. CEE 2024
    2. CEE 2023
    3. CEE 2022
    4. CEE 2021
  3. Institute of Medicine (IOM)
  4. 5. IOM 2017 (Re-exam)
    6. IOM 2017
    7. IOM 2016
    8. IOM 2014
    9. IOM 2013
    10. IOM 2012
    11. IOM 2011
    12. IOM 2010
    13. IOM 2010
    14. IOM 2009
    15. IOM 2009
    16. IOM 2008
    17. IOM 2007
    18. IOM 2006
    19. IOM 2005
    20. IOM 2004
    21. IOM 2003
    22. IOM 2002
    23. IOM 2001
    24. IOM 2000
    25. IOM 1999
    26. IOM 1998
  5. Kathmandu University Exam (KU)
  6. 27. KU 2018
    28. KU 2017
    29. KU 2016
    30. KU 2015
    31. KU 2014 (A)
    32. KU 2014 (B)
    33. KU 2013
    34. KU 2012
    35. KU 2011 Jan/ Feb
    36. KU 2010 Aug
    37. KU 2010 Jan/ Feb
    38. KU 2008
    39. KU 2006
    40. KU 2004
    41. KU 2003
    42. KU 2001
    43. KU 2000
  7. Patan Academy of Health Science (PAHS)
  8. 44. PAHS 2018
    45. PAHS 2017
Institute of Medicine (IOM)
10. IOM 2012
1. An Aeroplane moving with 300 Km/hr in circular path then what is change in velocity in half revolution
  • Zero
  • 300√2
  • 300 km/hr
  • 600 km/hr
2. A body cover 1/3rd distance with v1 velocity next and distance with v2 velocity then average velocity
  • (2v1v2)/(v1+v2)
  • (v1+v2)/2
  • (1v1v2)/(2v1+3v2)
  • (3v1v2)/(v2+2v1)
3. Heater is 1000 W then energy consumed in 2hrs is
  • 2 J
  • 20 KJ
  • 2 KWhr
  • 200 W
4. 25 W - 220 V and 100 W - 220 V is joined in series with 220 V mains then power will be
  • 4 W and 16 W
  • 32 W and 16 W
  • 8 W and 32 W
  • 16 W and 64 W
5. A cylinder has mass 'M' a length "l" and Radius 'R' then M.I. about own axis is
  • MR2
  • (MR2)/2
  • (MR2)/4
  • M(R2/4+l2/12)
6. The escape velocity from earth surface is 11 Km/sec then what is escape velocity from another plant of double radius having mean density same
  • 5.5 km/sec
  • 11 mk/sec
  • 22 km/sec
  • 15.5 km/sec
7. The thermometer reads 1° ice is melt and in boiling water 99° then what is temperature when it reads 25°C.
  • 24.4°C
  • 25.34°C
  • 26.3°C
  • 22.3°C
8. The time period of simple pendulum when
  • Length is increases by 2 times
  • Mass is increases by 2 times
  • Length is increases by 4 times
  • Length is reduced to half
9. The pressure and volume are changing but temperature is constant in the process
  • Adiabatic
  • Isothermal
  • Isobaric
  • Isochoric
10. Heat is flowing through two cylinder of same material. The diameter for rods are in the ratio and their length in 2:1. If the temperature deference between their end are same then ratio of amount of heat inducted though them per unit time will be
  • 1:8
  • 1:4
  • 8:1
  • 1:1
11. The heat energy produced by radiation is proportional to
  • Square of temperature in K
  • Square root of temperature in K
  • 4th power of temperature in K
  • Thrice power of temperature in K
12. Which of the following is vector
  • Electric potential
  • Electric flux
  • Charge density
  • Electric field intensity
13. When the Battery of voltage 'E' of internal resistance 'r' is connected in a circuit of resistance 'R' then 'i' current flows which is correct for voltage in circuit is
  • E + ir
  • E - ir
  • E + iR
  • E - iR
14. The sound travels with speed 300 ms-1 in string. Then find the distance between two successive nodes. If frequency is 1000 Hz
  • 20 cm
  • 30 cm
  • 15 cm
  • 45 cm
15. For production of beats the radio should tune with
  • Same frequency, difference phase
  • Difference frequency, same phase
  • Difference frequency constant phase
  • Same amplitude, and same frequency
16. When ice cube is placed in table then it's melts which is correct
  • The K.E. of gas molecules decreases
  • The P.E. of gas molecules decreases
  • The P.E. of gas molecules increases
  • The energy of gas molecules does not change
17. The reciprocal of wavelength is called
  • Velocity
  • Wave frequency
  • Amplitude
  • Wave number
18. For floating body to be stable
  • Metacenter should lies above the C.G
  • Metacenter should lies below the C.G.
  • Metacenter coincide with C.G.
  • Center of buoyancy above C.G
19. A moving charge experience forces if
  • All charge particle deflect in magnetic field
  • All charge particle do not deflect
  • Charge particle move along magnetic field
  • Charge particle move inclined to magnetic field
20. The convex lens has focal length 20 cm the power is
  • -5.0 D
  • +0.05 D
  • +5.0 D
  • -0.05 D
21. The V.D. of X is 4 times of Y. If molecular wt. of X is M then that of Y is
  • M
  • M/2
  • 4M
  • M/4
22. Fractional atomic wt of an element is because
  • Of existence of allotropic form
  • Eq. wt are not whole no.
  • Of existence of isotopes
  • Valency of element have fractional value
23. The radioactive substance after 90 days reduces to 12.5% then find the decay constant of substance
  • 0.3845/day
  • 0.0234/day
  • 0.467/day
  • 0.0467/day
24. The compound [Fe(CN)6]4- has hybridization
  • sp2
  • sp3
  • sp3d2
  • sp
25. When SO2 is passed through potassium iodate then the O.N. of iodine change from
  • +5 to 0
  • +7 to -1
  • -5 to 0
  • +7 to 0
26. When 100 cc of 1M H2SO4 is mixed with 20 cc of 5 M NaOH the resulting solution is
  • Acidic
  • Slightly basic
  • Strongly basic
  • Neutral
27. The wt of CuSO4.5H2O required to neutralize 500cc of 0.5M solution?
  • 31.18 gm
  • 61.36 gm
  • 63.28 gm
  • 128.12 gm
28. Milk is colloidal solution of
  • Water disperse in fat
  • Fat disperse in water
  • Fat disperse in lactic acid
  • Lactic acid disperse in fat
29. The conc. of cane sugar (C6H12O11) which is isotonic to 6 gm of urea in 1 litre
  • 34.2 g/lit
  • 68.4 g/l
  • 102.6 g/l
  • 342 g/l
30. Bond formation is accompanied by
  • Increase in energy
  • Decrease in energy
  • Energy remain same
  • The repulsive force dominant over attractive force
31. Which represents the 1st law of thermodynamics
  • P△V=△E−q
  • △E=q−W
  • △q=△E−P△V
  • △E=P△V
32. When 2 ice cube are pressed over each other, they unite to form one cube due to
  • Ionic interaction
  • Vanderwal force
  • Covalent bond
  • Hydrogen bond formation
33. The ore are concentrated for
  • Roasting
  • Smelting
  • Calcination
  • Benification
34. The N2 gas is collected by
  • Upward displacement of air
  • Downward displacement of air
  • Upward displacement of water
  • Downward displacement of water
35. Which of the following is character of Ionic bond
  • Low melting and boiling point
  • Insoluble in polar solvent
  • Vander waal's force of attraction
  • High melting and boiling point
36. In which of the following there is change is 5 oxidation state
  • MnO4-→Mn2+
  • Cr2O42-→Mn2+
  • MnO42-→MnO2
  • Cr2O72-→2Cr3+
37. Which is more conducting
  • Cu
  • Ag
  • Au
  • Al
38. No. of electron in CO2 molecule
  • 11
  • 22
  • 44
  • 32
39. Which of the following goes on elimination and substitution rxn but never addition
  • Alkane
  • Alkene
  • Alkyne
  • Benzene
40. Which is used in dynamite blasting process
  • Nitrophenol
  • TNT
  • Nitroglycerine
  • Phenol
41. The Nessler's reagent is used to identity
  • K+
  • Pb2+
  • Hg2+
  • NH4+
42. When ammonium cyanate is heated it form urea is an example of
  • Addition
  • Elimination
  • Substitution
  • Rearrangement
43. Which of the following most reactive to nitration
  • Toulene
  • Benzene
  • Benzoic acid
  • Benzaldehyde
44. When ethyl alcohol is passed to K2Cr2O7 the CH3CHO is formed it is
  • Addition
  • Reduction
  • Oxidation
  • Elimination
45. Which of the following is a functional isomer
  • Ethyl alcohol and dimethyl ether
  • Methyl alcohol and dimethyl ether
  • Propanoic acids and propanone
  • Acetone and acetaldehyde
46. Which of the following does not contain carboxy group
  • Benzoic acid
  • Picric acid
  • Ascorbic acid
  • Acetyl salicylic acid
47. When nitrobenzene is treated with Zn and Ammonium chloride then
  • Azobenzene
  • Azoxybenzene
  • Phenyl hydroxylamine
  • Aniline
48. Which process convert the optically active to inactive compounds
  • Racemization
  • Resolution
  • Optical inversion
  • Mutarotation
49. Which alcohol is formed from water gas
  • Ethanol
  • Methanol
  • Propanol
  • Butanol
50. Limit test is quantitave and qualitative test used to
  • To remove large quantity of organic impurity
  • To identify and control small quantities of organic impurity
  • To remove and control small quantities of medicinal impurity
  • To identity and separate medicinal substance
51. Which is the protein factory of the cell?
  • ER
  • Golgi bodies
  • Ribosomes
  • Mitochondira
52. Spicules forming cells is:
  • Pinocytes
  • Porocyte
  • Choanocyte
  • Fibroblast
53. Whale belongs to the class:
  • Rodientia
  • Carnivora
  • Cetacea
  • Chiroptera
54. Which is not a totally blood ingesting parasite?
  • Trypanosoma
  • Plasmodium
  • Schistosma
  • Ancylostoma
55. Euglena belongs to the class:
  • Monera
  • Protista
  • Plantae
  • Animalia
56. African sleeping sickness is caused by:
  • Leismania
  • Trypanosoma
  • Wucheria
  • Giardia
57. Locomotion in starfish is occurs by:
  • Tantacles
  • Feet
  • Water vascular system
  • Cilia
58. Water vascular system is found in:
  • Porifera
  • Coelenterata
  • Echinodermata
  • Mollusca
59. In which of the following animal asexual reproduction is absent?
  • Paramecium
  • Pheretima
  • Hydra
  • Sponge
60. What is correct about earthworm?
  • Fertilization is internal inside ovary
  • Lacunar blood vascular system present
  • Fertilization is external and inside cocoon.
  • It don't have brain
61. Epidermal cells of hydra has:
  • Interstitial cell
  • Nematocysts
  • Sensory cell
  • Musculo-endothelial cell
62. In which of the organism pseudocoelom is present?
  • Coelenterata
  • Hydra
  • Platyhelminthes
  • Nemathelminthes
63. Which of the following is cold blooded animals?
  • Bird
  • Penguin
  • Lizard
  • Bat
64. Acromian process is found in?
  • Pelvic girdle
  • Pectoral girdle
  • Humerous
  • Radio ulna
65. Where do we find malphighian capsule?
  • Renal cortex
  • Renal medulla
  • Renal calyx
  • Pelvis
66. Endocrine part of pancreas is:
  • Crypts of Leiberkuhn
  • Islets of Langerhans
  • Payer's patches
  • Acinii
67. During wound healing and infection which tissue are formed?
  • Lymphatic
  • Reticular
  • Adipose
  • Areolar
68. Site for hearing in ear is?
  • Cochlea
  • Sacculus
  • Utriculus
  • Semi circular canal
69. Acid rain is caused due to gas which also effect respiratory passage?
  • CO2
  • NO
  • PbNO3
  • SO2
70. Deoxygenated blood is passed to right auricle in frog from:
  • Sinus venosus
  • Carotid vein
  • Pulmonary vein
  • Venacava
71. Longest cranial nerve is:
  • Occulomotor
  • Vagus
  • Abducens
  • Occipatal
72. Maximum individual are found in which of the following?
  • Class
  • Species
  • Family
  • Order
73. Which enzyme is not found in carnivore:
  • Salivary amylase
  • Lipase
  • Trypsin
  • Pepsin
74. RBCs are short lived due to:
  • Nucleus
  • Mitochondria
  • Ribosome
  • Golgi bodies
75. Which part is not found in frog stomach:
  • Fundic
  • Pyloric
  • Cardiac
  • Fundic and cardiac
76. No. of cranial nerve in rabbit:
  • 9
  • 10
  • 11
  • 12
77. Corpus luteum is formed by?
  • Germinal epithelial tissue
  • Endometrium
  • Ruptured graffian follicle
  • Luitinise cell
78. Chromophil cells serve to
  • Secrete mucus
  • Secrete saliva
  • Pigmentation
  • Fat storage
79. In which of the following association both the organisms are benefitted?
  • Symbiosis
  • Commensalism
  • Parasitism
  • Proto-cooperation
80. Totipotency refers to
  • Potency of plants to give young one
  • Potency of animals to give young one
  • Potency of plant to reproduce asexually
  • Fusion of gametes during sexual reproduction
81. What is the scientific name of Mango?
  • Mangifera indica
  • Magno champance
  • Morus alba
  • Atropa belloda
82. Which of the following is a dual complex tissue?
  • Parenchyma
  • Sclerenchyma
  • Aerenchyma
  • Xylem
83. Trachea, tracheids, wood parenchyma and vessels are present in?
  • Collenchyma
  • Parenchyma
  • Aerenchyma
  • Xylem
84. Glycolysis occurs in
  • Golgi complex
  • Cytoplasm
  • Mitochondria
  • ER
85. Which component is most dispersed in a cell?
  • Carbohydrate
  • Lipid
  • Protein
  • Nucleic acid
86. The mitotic poison is
  • Auxin
  • Colchicine
  • Giberellin
  • High temperature
87. Typical 8 nucleated embryo sac is of which type
  • Polygonium
  • Allium
  • Atriplex
  • Fritillium
88. Which of the following is male gametophyte in higher plant?
  • Microspore
  • Male gamete
  • Pollen grain
  • Microsporangium
89. A food chain always start with
  • Decay
  • Photosynthesis
  • Respiration
  • Transpiration
90. In which stage chromosome are arranged in equator?
  • Prophase
  • Anaphase
  • Metaphase
  • Telophase
91. In meiosis, bivalent is attached to spindle fiber at
  • Chromomere
  • Centromere
  • Chromosome
  • Chromatid
92. DNA is genetic material because
  • It is found in nucleus
  • Produce t-RNA
  • Can replicate
  • Transformation
93. A fruit developed without fertilization
  • Parthenogenesis
  • Apogamy
  • Parthenocarpy
  • Apospory
94. Influenza virus is
  • 2 RNA
  • 2 DNA
  • 1 RNA
  • 1 DNA
95. Jute fibre is obtained from
  • Xylem fibres
  • Bast fibres
  • Epidermal hairs
  • Endosperm
96. Site of evaporation of water is
  • Lenticels
  • Walls of mesophyll cell
  • Stomata
  • Epidermis
97. For plasmolysis, cell is placed in
  • Isotonic
  • Hypothermic
  • Hypotonic
  • Hyperthermic
98. In RNA uracil is present instead of
  • Adenine
  • Cytocine
  • Guanine
  • Thymine
99. Largest cell organelle is
  • Lysosome
  • Ribosome
  • Chromosome
  • Mitochondria